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UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2022 MCQs Set 20 – PDF Download

 

Q201.  With reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a statutory office.
  2. The Commissioner for linguistic minorities falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
  3. The Commissioner is appointed by the Cabinet Committee on Appointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Explanation:

  • It is a constitutional post constituted under Article 350B. Hence statement 1 is wrong
  • The Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence statement 2 is right.
  • Officer is appointed by President. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
  • The Commissioner takes up all the matters pertaining to the grievances arising out of the nonimplementation of the Constitutional and Nationally Agreed Scheme of Safeguards provided to linguistic minorities.

Q202.  With reference to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), consider the following statements:

  1. These are found only in Andaman and Nicobar Island and the North-Eastern States.
  2. These tribal groups are also mentioned in the Scheduled Tribes List.
  3. Forest Rights Act-2006 recognizes the special rights of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Explanation:

  • They are found in the most part of India. Some famous PVTGs in the news:
  1. Odisha – Mankidia
  2. Andaman & Nicobar: Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa, Sentinelese, Nicobarese and Shompens
  3. Maharashtra: Katkaria (Kathodia) Kolam, Maria Gond Hence statement 1 is wrong.
  • The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:

(i) A pre-agriculture level of technology;

(ii) A stagnant or declining population;

(iii) Extremely low literacy; and

(iv) A subsistence level of the economy.

  • In general, they are the most backward among the Scheduled Tribes. Hence, statement 2 is right.
  • The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006 for undoing “the  historical injustices” under which there are special provisions to recognize the “rights over community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities. “Hence statement 3 is right.
  • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing a scheme namely “Development of PVTGs” which covers the 75 identified PVTGs among Scheduled Tribes in 18 States/ UT of Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

Q203 . Which of the following is/are correct regarding the functions of the ‘Union Public Service Commission’?

  1. It is consulted on the principles to be followed in making appointments, promotions and transfers to the civil services.
  2. It serves the needs of a state on the request of the state Governor and with the approval of the President of India.
  3. It is consulted on matters related to personnel management.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Explanation: All statements are correct.

  • ‘Union Public Service Commission’ is consulted on the following matters related to personnel management:
  1. All matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
  2. The principles to be followed in making appointments, promotions and transfers to the civil services.
  3. The suitability of candidates for appointments to civil services and posts; for promotions and transfers from one service to another; and appointments by transfer or deputation.
  4. It is consulted on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India.
  • It serves all or any of the needs of a state on the request of the state governor and with the approval of the President of India.
  • It is consulted on matters related to personnel management.

Q204.  Consider the functions of constitutional bodies, they may perform, with respect to Centre-State relations,

  1. CAG has powers to audit even the accounts of state governments.
  2. Inter-State council advises the President upon disputes which may arise between States.
  3. Election Commission of India conducts the Rural and Urban local body elections also.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Ans. (d)

Explanation:

These constitutional bodies have functional role in various aspects of Centre-State relations.

  • CAG -Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
  • He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, consolidated fund of each state and consolidated fund of each union territory having a Legislative Assembly. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • • Inter-State Council (ISC)- ISC is not a permanent body. First time constituted in 1990.
  • • Article 263 specifies the duties- enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Election Commission- Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of Vice-President of India shall be vested in the election commission [not local body elections that is conducted by respective state election commissions]. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q205.  Consider the following statements regarding ‘Official Language’ provisions of the constitution

  1. Hindi was originally chosen as the official language of the union.
  2. States needed the concurrence of Parliament to ratify the ‘official Language of state’ chosen by their legislatures.
  3. Proceedings of Supreme Court can be operated in Hindi and English both.
  4. Constitution imposed duty upon Centre to promote Hindi so that it may become Lingua Franca.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Explanation:

  • Hindi was chosen as the official language along with continuation of English for 15 years (till 1965). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Supreme Court proceedings are allowed in English only. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • State legislatures needed no concurrence of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language so that it may become the lingua franca. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Q206 . Which of the following information could you infer directly from the preamble of the Constitution of India?

  1. Date of enactment of the constitution.
  2. Secular nature of the Indian State.
  3. Constitution derives its authority from ‘the people of India’.
  4. Parliamentary form of polity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

Explanation:

  • The Preamble does not talks about the Parliamentary form of Govt., Information which can directly be seen in Preamble are-
  1. Source of authority of the Constitution: the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India,
  2. Nature of Indian State: sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
  3. Objectives of the Constitution: justice, liberty, equality and fraternity
  4. Date of adoption of the Constitution

Q207.  Consider the following statements about UPSC:

  1. The chairman of UPSC is not eligible for reappointment to that office.
  2. Entire expenses of UPSC are voted in the Parliament in the annual budget.
  3. Member of the UPSC can be removed from the office on the same grounds and in the manner as that of Supreme Court Judge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Ans. (d) Referendum

Explanation:

  • The chairman or a member of UPSC is not eligible for reappointment to that office for a second term. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed by the President of India on any of the following grounds, if the member or Chairman:
  • is adjudged an insolvent (unable to pay one’s debt)
  • engages in paid employment during his tenure outside the duties of his office
  • Is infirm of body or mind
  • participates in any office of profit, becomes concerned in any agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the government or benefits from emoluments or profit arising from an incorporated company
  • A member or Chairman of UPSC can be removed on the ground of misbehavior (discussed above), which is proved in an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court after a reference is made by the President to the Supreme Court to conduct such an inquiry
  • On the other hand, SC judge can be removed on the basis of two grounds – proved misbehavior or incapacity. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The entire expenses including the salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the vote of Parliament. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

Q208.  Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT):

  1. It is an executive body established by the cabinet resolution.
  2. It is not bound by the procedure laid down in Code of Civil Procedure.
  3. It adjudicates matters related to the Public Liability Insurance Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 Only

(d) 2 only

Ans. (b)

Explanation:

  • The NGT was established under National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. Thus it is a statutory body. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • It is not bound by the procedure laid down in Code of Civil Procedure and follows principles of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It adjudicates matters relating to Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981; Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; Forest Conservation Act, 1980 and Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Hence statement 3 is correct

Q209.  Consider the following statements regarding ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’.

  1. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court under ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ if any of the Constitutional Rights are violated.
  2. ‘Right to the Constitutional Remedies’ cannot be amended by the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ is available only against violation of Fundamental Rights.
  • Statement 2 is correct: As per the Supreme Court of India, ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ under Article 32 is a part of the basic structure of the constitution and thus cannot be amended.

Q210.  Consider the following statements.

  1. Indian constitution has no provision for ban on cow slaughter.
  2. Free legal aid to the poor is a justiciable right under the Indian constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  (d)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 48 of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 41 directs the State to secure free legal aid to the poor but since it is one of the DPSP’s, it is not a justiciable right.

 

 

 

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