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UPSC CSE Prelims Exam 2022 MCQs Set 24 – Free PDF Download

 

Q241. Consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Constitution recognized Hindi as National language.
  2. States can adopt only English or Hindi as the Official Language of that state.
  3. A Member of the Parliament can address the House in his/her mother tongue after the permission of Chairman or Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

Explanation:

  • Option 1 is Incorrect: In the Constitution, Hindi was declared as an Official Language and not a National Language. Under Article 343, Official Language of the Union has been prescribed, which includes Hindi in Devanagari script and English.
  • Option 2 is Incorrect: According to the Constitution Hindi written in Devanagari script is the Official Language of the Union but doesn’t mandate such for states. Therefore, Kerala hasadopted Malyalam, Andhra Pradesh has adopted Telugu and many north Indian states like Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan etc have adopted Hindi as their Official Language.
  • Option 3 is Correct: As per Constitution, the languages to conduct the business of Parliament are Hindi or English. However, a member can address the house in his own language with permission from Presiding Officer of that House.

Q242. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act added some special provisions in the Constitution of India related to co-operative societies. In this context, which of the following changes were made in the Constitution of India?

  1. It gave a constitutional status to cooperative societies.
  2. It made the Right to form Co-operative Societies a Fundamental Right.
  3. It included a new Fundamental Duty on the promotion of co-operative societies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Explanation:

  • Options 1 and 2 are correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
  • In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
  1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right (Article 191 ).
  2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B2 ).
  3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT) making it constitutional.
  • Option 3 is Incorrect: New Fundamental Duty is not added.

Q243. The term ‘Union of India’ includes which of the following?

  1. Union territories
  2. States
  3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Explanation:

Answer Specific Points:

  • Only 2 is Correct: According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
  1. Territories of the states 2. Union territories 3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
  • Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the Union of India includes only states while the Territory includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.

Q244. Which of the following statements are correct about the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005?

  1. RTI Act, 2005 secures access to information under the control of public authorities.
  2. BPL card holders are not charged for seeking information.
  3. Jammu and Kashmir has its own RTI Act.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

  • The Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005 is widely seen as a watershed development in Indian democracy. It provides citizens the right to secure access to information under the control of public authorities in order to promote transparency and accountability.
  • If claiming fee waiver of RTI fee, the Below the Poverty Line (BPL) applicant must attach a photocopy of a BPL/Antyodaya ration card or any other valid proof of BPL identity so that he won’t be charged .

Q) Which of the following hold true under the Right to Freedom:

  1. Right to freedom of speech and expression
  2. Right to form associations
  3. Right to vote
  4. Right to move freely within the country

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

1) The Right to Freedom includes the right to freedom and expression, the right to form associations, the right to move freely and reside in any part of the country and the right to practice any profession, occupation or business.

Q) The members of the Constituent Assembly framed the Directive Principles of State Policy for:

  1. Ensuring greater social and economic reform.
  2. Serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1) The Constitution has a section called Directive Principles of State Policy.

2) This section was designed by the members of the Constituent Assembly to ensure greater social and economic reform, and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.

Q 247. The most important aspect of secularism is:

(a) Separation of religion from State power

(b) Allocation of power to minorities

(c) Right to practice any religion of choice

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) Separation of religion from State power

Explanation:

1) The most important aspect of secularism is its separation of religion from State power. This is important for a country to function democratically.

Q248. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Indian state supports certain religions.
  2. The Indian state separates itself from religions.

Choose the correct option.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1) The Indian State uses a strategy of distancing itself from religion.

2) The Indian State is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion.

Q249. The Amendment of the U.S. Constitution which prohibits the legislature from making laws “respecting an establishment of religion” is:

(a) Second Amendment

(b) First Amendment

(c) Fifth Amendment

(d) Eighth Amendment

Ans. (b) First Amendment

Explanation:

1) The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution prohibits the legislature from making laws “respecting an establishment of religion.

Q250 A simple majority is obtained in a House, when what percent of votes are obtained by the majority party:

(a) 40% + 1

(b) 50% + 1

(c) 66% + 1

(d) 33% + 1

Ans. (b) 50%

Explanation:

1) A majority is a situation when more than half the number in a group supports a decision or an idea. This is also called a simple majority.

 

 

 

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